Revision history[back]

# 1/4J 1H-15N delay times

Why is it often the case that when transferring magentization from 1H to 15N, the 1/4J time is often a little less than expected - for example, it is often set to 2.25 ms. On the other hand, when transferring back form 15N to 1H for detection, 1/4J is typically set accurately to 2.7 ms?

I'm assuming the answer is something to do with relaxation of 1H during INEPT transfer. How necessary is this? Is there a way to optimize the values based on t2 time rather than sit at the magnet and manually optimize them?

 2 No.1 Revision posted Aug 26 '09 at 15:25 Evgeny Fadeev 577●1

# 1/4J 1H-15N delay times

Why is it often the case that when transferring magentization from 1H to 15N, the 1/4J time is often a little less than expected - for example, it is often set to 2.25 ms. On the other hand, when transferring back form 15N to 1H for detection, 1/4J is typically set accurately to 2.7 ms?

I'm assuming the answer is something to do with relaxation of 1H during INEPT transfer. How necessary is this? Is there a way to optimize the values based on t2 time rather than sit at the magnet and manually optimize them?

 3 No.2 Revision posted Aug 26 '09 at 15:45 Evgeny Fadeev 577●1

# 1/4J 1H-15N delay times

Why is it often the case that when transferring magentization from 1H to 15N, the 1/4J time is often a little less than expected - for example, it is often set to 2.25 ms. On the other hand, when transferring back form 15N to 1H for detection, 1/4J is typically set accurately to 2.7 ms?

I'm assuming the answer is something to do with relaxation of 1H during INEPT transfer. How necessary is this? Is there a way to optimize the values based on t2 time rather than sit at the magnet and manually optimize them?

 4 No.3 Revision posted Aug 27 '09 at 00:13 Evgeny Fadeev 577●1

# Optimal choice of 1/4J 1H-15N delay timestimes in INEPT

Why is it often the case that when transferring magentization from 1H to 15N, the 1/4J time is often a little less than expected - for example, it is often set to 2.25 ms. On the other hand, when transferring back form 15N to 1H for detection, 1/4J is typically set accurately to 2.7 ms?

I'm assuming the answer is something to do with relaxation of 1H during INEPT transfer. How necessary is this? Is there a way to optimize the values based on t2 time rather than sit at the magnet and manually optimize them?

 5 No.4 Revision posted Aug 27 '09 at 00:19 Evgeny Fadeev 577●1

# Optimal choice of 1/4J 1H-15N delay times in INEPT

Why is it often the case that when transferring magentization from 1H to 15N, the 1/4J time is often a little less than expected - for example, it is often set to 2.25 ms. On the other hand, when transferring back form 15N to 1H for detection, 1/4J is typically set accurately to 2.7 ms?

I'm assuming the answer is something to do with relaxation of 1H during INEPT transfer. How necessary is this? Is there a way to optimize the values based on t2 time rather than sit at the magnet and manually optimize them?

 6 No.5 Revision posted Nov 18 '09 at 14:26 Evgeny Fadeev 577●1

# Optimal choice of 1/4J 1H-15N delay in INEPT

Why is it often the case that when transferring magentization from 1H to 15N, the 1/4J time is often a little less than expected - for example, it is often set to 2.25 ms. On the other hand, when transferring back form 15N to 1H for detection, 1/4J is typically set accurately to 2.7 ms?

I'm assuming the answer is something to do with relaxation of 1H during INEPT transfer. How necessary is this? Is there a way to optimize the values based on t2 time rather than sit at the magnet and manually optimize them?

 7 bumped question to the top of the list posted Jan 22 '10 at 12:23 Evgeny Fadeev 577●1

# Optimal choice of 1/4J 1H-15N delay in INEPT

Why is it often the case that when transferring magentization from 1H to 15N, the 1/4J time is often a little less than expected - for example, it is often set to 2.25 ms. On the other hand, when transferring back form 15N to 1H for detection, 1/4J is typically set accurately to 2.7 ms?

I'm assuming the answer is something to do with relaxation of 1H during INEPT transfer. How necessary is this? Is there a way to optimize the values based on t2 time rather than sit at the magnet and manually optimize them?

 8 fixed typo posted Jan 22 '10 at 12:24 Evgeny Fadeev 577●1

# Optimal choice of 1/4J 1H-15N delay in INEPT

Why is it often the case that when transferring magentization magnetization from 1H to 15N, the 1/4J time is often a little less than expected - for example, it is often set to 2.25 ms. On the other hand, when transferring back form 15N to 1H for detection, 1/4J is typically set accurately to 2.7 ms?

I'm assuming the answer is something to do with relaxation of 1H during INEPT transfer. How necessary is this? Is there a way to optimize the values based on t2 time rather than sit at the magnet and manually optimize them?

 9 No.8 Revision posted Apr 14 '10 at 16:33 Evgeny Fadeev 577●1

# Optimal choice of How to optimally choose a 1/4J 1H-15N delay in INEPTfor INEPT?

Why is it often the case that when transferring magnetization from 1H to 15N, the 1/4J time is often a little less than expected - for example, it is often set to 2.25 ms. On the other hand, when transferring back form 15N to 1H for detection, 1/4J is typically set accurately to 2.7 ms?

I'm assuming the answer is something to do with relaxation of 1H during INEPT transfer. How necessary is this? Is there a way to optimize the values based on t2 time rather than sit at the magnet and manually optimize them?